The Pope vs. Canada
In a condemnation of Canadian Catholics, the Pope said the following:
"In the name of tolerance your country has had to endure the folly of the redefinition of spouse, and in the name of freedom of choice it is confronted with the daily destruction of unborn children," the Pope told a group of bishops from Ontario. Such laws, he said, are the result of "the exclusion of God from the public sphere."
Setting aside completely the issues of gay marriage and abortion, does the Pope have the causality correct? I think we have several different options:
(1) The exclusion of God from the public square CAUSED liberal abortion and marriage laws.
(2) Liberal abortion and marriage laws CAUSED the exclusion of God from the public square.
(3) The exclusion of God from the public square is correlated with the rise of such laws.
(4) The exclusion of God from the public square and such laws are both due to another factor or group of factors, but are directly causally related.
(5) The exclusion of God from the public square and such laws are only coincidentally related; it is completely historically contingent that they happen to be occurring simultaneously.
What does everyone think? After the discussion gets rolling I'll probably throw in with (4).
(Ironic that one of the most nightmarish scenarios of a reversal of such laws was written by a Canadian?)